This is a semantic question, but I want to get a feel for what you guys think.

        • rufus@discuss.tchncs.de
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          5
          ·
          edit-2
          9 months ago

          Because the second paragraph of the article says it could not be established that anyone was speeding at all?

          • Thann@lemmy.mlOP
            link
            fedilink
            English
            arrow-up
            1
            arrow-down
            5
            ·
            edit-2
            9 months ago

            what? youre talking about the joemygod(dot)com article?
            its pretty biased and if you read the pdf you can search for Zwonitzer: you can find tons of examples of biden bragging about having the classified material. So its pretty well-established that joe had the info and knew he had the info. so he broke the law.

            • Big P@feddit.uk
              link
              fedilink
              English
              arrow-up
              5
              ·
              9 months ago

              So really the question should be “if you are alleged to have been speeding, but some people are reporting that there is no evidence that you were speeding and some others are saying that source is biased - did you break the law?”

              • Thann@lemmy.mlOP
                link
                fedilink
                English
                arrow-up
                1
                arrow-down
                3
                ·
                9 months ago

                So youre suggesting that if someone says I wasn’t speeding we should disregard the audio tape of me bragging about speeding?